Total Question. - 160

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Section 1; GA

Section 2: Genetic

Section 3: Plant pathology

Section 4: plant breeding

Section 5: Seed Technology

Section 6: Microbiology

Section 7: Biotechnology

Section 1: General Agriculture

Question No. 1:

India with 2.4% of world’s are has global biodiversity of

(A) 25% (B) 8%

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (B) 8%

Explanation: India, despite having only 2.4% of the world's land area, houses approximately 8% of the global biodiversity. This highlights India's rich and diverse ecosystem..

Question No. 2:

M.S. Swaminathan Research Foundation is located at

(A) Coimbatore(B) Bangalore

Answer+Explanation

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Question No. 3:

Contribution of Agriculture to the gross domestic product (GDP) of India is

(A) 24.7%(B) 8.0%

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (C) 14.0%

Explanation: Agriculture plays a crucial role in India's economy, contributing around 14% to the country's GDP..

Question No. 4:

The term “Green Revolution” was coined by

(A) Norman E. Borlaug

(B) M.S. Swaminathan

(D) William Gaud

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (D) William Gaud

Explanation: The term "Green Revolution" was coined by William Gaud in 1968 to describe the significant increase in food grain production due to the introduction of high-yielding varieties, fertilizers, and irrigation techniques..

Question No. 5:

Nitrogen is mainly absorbed by plants from soil in the form of

(A) N2 (B) NH4+

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (D) NO3- (Nitrate)

Explanation: Plants primarily absorb nitrogen from the soil in the form of nitrate ions (NO3-), which are the most readily available form of nitrogen for plant uptake..

Question No. 6:

Amino acids found in proteins have the same general structure +H3N RCH-COO except

(A) Glycine (B) Alanine

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) Glycine

Explanation: Glycine is unique among amino acids as its R group is a single hydrogen atom, making it the simplest amino acid..

Question No. 7:

Soil containing a relatively equal mixture of sand and silt and little of clay is

(A) Loam (B) Sand clay

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) Loam

Explanation: Loam is a balanced soil texture that has roughly equal parts sand and silt, with a smaller amount of clay, making it ideal for agriculture..

Question No. 8:

The first Director General of ICAR was

(A) M.S Swaminathan (B) B.P. Pal

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (B) B.P. Pal

Explanation: Dr. B.P. Pal was the first Director General of the Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)..

Question No. 9:

The system of minimum support price (MSP) for cereal crops in India has been in operation since the year

(A) 1962 (B) 1965

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (B) 1965

Explanation: The MSP system was introduced in India in 1965 to ensure fair prices for farmers and stabilize the agricultural economy..

Question No. 10:

Which one refers to wheat aphid

(A) Myzus persicae

(B) Aphis gossypii

(D) Macrosiphum granarium

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (D) Macrosiphum granarium

Explanation: Macrosiphum granarium is a species of aphid known to infest wheat crops..

Question No. 11:

The Great Bengal Famine mainly due to the brown spot of rice occurred in

(A) 1942

(B) 1885

(D) 1965

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) 1942

Explanation: The Great Bengal Famine of 1943 was exacerbated by the brown spot disease of rice, caused by the fungus Bipolaris oryzae..

Question No. 12:

One of the following is not an essential amino acid

(A) Methionine

(B) Lysine

(D) Phenylalanine

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (C) Alanine

Explanation: Alanine is a non-essential amino acid, meaning the body can synthesize it and it does not need to be obtained directly through the diet..

Question No. 13:

Maltose is composed of

(A) Glucose and glucose (B) Glocose and galactose

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) Glucose and glucose

Explanation: Maltose is a disaccharide made up of two glucose molecules joined by an alpha-1,4-glycosidic bond..

Question No. 14:

The most widely used egg parasitoid in pest management is

(A) Telenomus (B) Tetrastichus

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (C) Trichogramma

Explanation: Trichogramma species are tiny wasps that parasitize the eggs of many pest insects, making them widely used in biological pest control..

Question No. :15

Nilaparvata lugens is the scientific name of

(A) Green leaf hopper (B) Brown plant hopper

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (B) Brown plant hopper

Explanation: Nilaparvata lugens is the scientific name for the brown plant hopper, a major pest of rice.

Question No. :16

Soils with pH less than 8.5, EC more than 4 dSM-1 and exchangeable sodium percent (ESP) less than 15 are

(A) Saline soils (B) Alkali soils

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) Saline soils

Explanation: Soils with a pH less than 8.5, electrical conductivity (EC) more than 4 dS/m, and exchangeable sodium percentage (ESP) less than 15 are classified as saline soils.

Question No. :17

Soils which respond positively to liming

(A) Acid soils (B) Saline soils

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) Acid soils

Explanation: Acid soils, which have a low pH, respond positively to liming as it helps to neutralize the acidity and improve soil conditions for plant growth.

Question No. :18

Below poverty line population in India is defined to achieve a nutritional norm up to or below

(A) 1000 calories/per person/day (B) 1500 calories/per person/day

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (C) 2400 calories/per person/day

Explanation: The below poverty line (BPL) population in India is defined based on the nutritional norm of 2400 calories per person per day in rural areas and 2100 calories in urban areas.

Question No. :19

Besides India, major investment in research in mango breeding and improvement is underway in

(A) Iran (B) Israel

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (B) Israel

Explanation: Israel is known for its significant investment in agricultural research, including mango breeding and improvement.

Question No. :20

A combination of pest control strategies based on environmental and ecological consideration is best known as

(A) Ecological pest control (B) Environmental pest control

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (C) Integrated pest management

Explanation: Integrated Pest Management (IPM) combines various pest control strategies based on environmental and ecological considerations to minimize the use of chemical pesticides and promote sustainable agriculture.

Question No. :21

Presence of plasmid is observed

(A) Only in bacteria (B) Also in a few yeast fungi

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (C) Both in (A+B)

Explanation: Plasmids are extrachromosomal DNA found in bacteria and some fungi, such as yeast.

Question No. :22

Natural auxin is

(A) IIA (B) NAA

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) IIA

Explanation: Indole-3-acetic acid (IAA) is a naturally occurring auxin, a type of plant hormone that regulates growth and development.

Question No. :23

Acid rain is precipitation with a low pH due to the presence of air pollutants

(A) NO2 and SO2 (B) CO2 and H2S

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) NO2 and SO2

Explanation: Acid rain is primarily caused by the presence of sulfur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen dioxide (NO2) in the atmosphere, which react with water to form sulfuric and nitric acids.

Question No. :24

Soybean protein is deficient in one of the amino acids

(A) Tyrosine (B) Leucine

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (C) Methionine

Explanation: Soybean protein is deficient in the essential amino acid methionine, which is necessary for growth and tissue repair.

Question No. :25

The alternation of different crop species in the same soil

(A) Intercropping (B) Mixed cropping

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (D) Rotational cropping (crop rotation)

Explanation: Crop rotation involves alternating different crop species in the same field to improve soil health and reduce pest and disease problems.

Question No. :26

Extrachromosomal inheritance is due to non-nuclear genes in

(A) Mitochondria (B) Chloroplasts

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (C) Both (A and B)

Explanation: Extrachromosomal inheritance involves genes located in organelles such as mitochondria and chloroplasts, which are inherited independently of nuclear genes.

Question No. :27

The system of triplet codons is composed of nucleotides of

(A) r-RNA (B) m-RNA

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (B) m-RNA

Explanation: The system of triplet codons, which determine amino acid sequences in proteins, is composed of nucleotides in messenger RNA (m-RNA).

Question No. :28

Prokaryotes that lack cell wall are

(A) Bacteria (B) Phytoplasmas

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (D) Mollicutes

Explanation: Mollicutes are a class of bacteria that lack a cell wall, which includes Mycoplasma and related organisms.

Question No. :29

When the pH of a solution is decreased by one unit from 5 to 4, the [H+] ion concentration will be increased

(A) two folds (B) one fold

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (C) ten folds

Explanation: The pH scale is logarithmic, so a decrease of one pH unit represents a tenfold increase in hydrogen ion concentration.

Question No. :30

When the pH of a solution is decreased by one unit from 5 to 4, the [H+] ion concentration will be increased

(A) two folds (B) one fold

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (C) ten folds

Explanation: The pH scale is logarithmic, so a decrease of one pH unit represents a tenfold increase in hydrogen ion concentration.

Question No. :31

The term pH for expression of the [H+] ion concentration was given by

(A) Henderson (B) Sorensen

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (B) Sorensen

Explanation: The term pH was introduced by the Danish chemist S.P.L. Sørensen in 1909 to represent the hydrogen ion concentration.

Question No. :32

Most commonly the buffer solution consists of a mixture of

(A) Water and strong acid (B) Water and weak acid

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (D) Weak acid and its conjugate base

Explanation: Buffer solutions typically consist of a weak acid and its conjugate base to resist changes in pH.

Question No. :33

The National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (NBPGR) is located at

(A) Lucknow (B) Karnal

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (C) New Delhi

Explanation: The National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (NBPGR) is located in New Delhi, India, and is responsible for the collection, conservation, and utilization of plant genetic resources.

Question No. :34

The first high-yielding dwarf variety of rice introduced into India through IRRI

(A) IR 18 (B) IR 8

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (B) IR 8

Explanation: IR 8 was the first high-yielding dwarf variety of rice introduced into India by the International Rice Research Institute (IRRI).

Question No. :35

In India, presently per capita net availability of edible oils including vanaspati is

(A) 6.5 kg/person/year (B) 10 Kg/person/year

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (B) 10 Kg/person/year

Explanation: The per capita net availability of edible oils, including vanaspati, in India is around 10 Kg per person per year.

Question No. :36

In India Mango occupies about

(A) 14.2 Lakh ha (B) 60 Lakh ha

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) 14.2 Lakh ha

Explanation: Mango occupies about 14.2 lakh hectares in India, making it one of the major fruit crops in terms of area.

Question No. :37

The average oil-content of soybean seed is about

(A) 20% (B) 30%

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (B) 30%

Explanation: The average oil content in soybean seeds is about 30%, which is a significant source of vegetable oil.

Question No. :38

The most popular and efficient species of earthworm for vermicompost is

(A) Eudrilus eugeniae (B) Eisenia fetida

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (B) Eisenia fetida

Explanation: Eisenia fetida, also known as the red wiggler, is the most popular and efficient earthworm species used for vermicomposting due to its high reproduction rate and ability to process organic waste.

Question No. :39

The seed rate of Indian cotton normally is

(A) 12-15 Kg ha-1 (B) 25-30 Kg ha-1

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (C) 15-20 Kg ha-1

Explanation: The recommended seed rate for Indian cotton is usually around 15-20 Kg per hectare to ensure optimal plant population and yield.

Question No. :40

One of the following is a plant growth retardant

(A) Planofix (B) CCC

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (B) CCC

Explanation: CCC (Cycocel or Chlormequat chloride) is a plant growth retardant used to control plant height and promote sturdier growth.

Question No. :41

The inflorescence of rice plant is

(A) Cymose (B) Panicle

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (B) Panicle

Explanation: The inflorescence of the rice plant is a panicle, which is a loose, branching cluster of flowers.

Question No. :42

India, with 2.4% of world’s land supports world population to the extent of

(A) 2.6% (B) 16%

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (B) 16%

Explanation: Despite having only 2.4% of the world's land area, India supports approximately 16% of the world's population, highlighting the country's high population density.

Question No. :43

The amount of nitrogen fixed by blue green algae (BGA) in wet paddy fields ranges from

(A) 15 to 45 Kg ha-1 (B) 10 to 15 Kg ha-1

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) 15 to 45 Kg ha-1

Explanation: Blue green algae (BGA) can fix nitrogen in wet paddy fields in the range of 15 to 45 Kg ha-1, contributing to soil fertility.

Question No. :44

JL-24 is a variety of

(A) Cotton (B) Rice

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (C) Groundnut

Explanation: JL-24 is a popular variety of groundnut known for its high yield and disease resistance.

Question No. :45

A plant growth regulator which promotes cell division, enlargement and apical dominance is called

(A) Auxin (B) Coleoptile

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) Auxin

Explanation: Auxins are plant growth regulators that promote cell division, cell enlargement, and maintain apical dominance, influencing various growth processes.

Question No. :46

Maximum permissible limit of aflatoxins in food products or oil cakes is in the range of

(A) 5-30 ppb (B) 5-30 ppm

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) 5-30 ppb

Explanation: The maximum permissible limit of aflatoxins in food products or oil cakes is typically in the range of 5-30 parts per billion (ppb) to ensure food safety.

Question No. :47

The phosphorus solubilizing bacterium is

(A) Bacillus subtilis (B) Bacillus polymyxa

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (B) Bacillus polymyxa

Explanation: Bacillus polymyxa is known for its ability to solubilize phosphorus, making it more available to plants.

Question No. :48

The DIP Act in India was passed in the year

(A) 1947 (B) 1914

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (B) 1914

Explanation: The DIP (Drugs and Cosmetics) Act in India was originally passed in the year 1914.

Question No. :49

Quality of water required by wet paddy crop to produce 1kg of rice is about

(A) 2000 liters (B) 5000 liters

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (B) 5000 liters

Explanation: Producing 1kg of rice typically requires about 5000 liters of water due to the water-intensive nature of paddy cultivation.

Question No. :50

Common bread wheat is

(A) Triticum monococcum (B) Triticum dicoccum

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (C) Triticum aestivum

Explanation: Common bread wheat is scientifically known as Triticum aestivum, which is the most widely cultivated wheat species.

Question No. :51

Standard deviation (S) is expressed as

(A) S=……… (B) S=V2

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) S=……...

Explanation: Standard deviation (S) is a measure of the amount of variation or dispersion in a set of values. It is typically expressed as the square root of the variance, calculated as S = √[Σ(xi - x̄)² / N], where xi represents each data point, x̄ is the mean, and N is the number of data points.

Question No. :52

‘Erineum’ patches are the characteristic symptom of damage caused by

(A) Mites (B) White flies

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) Mites

Explanation: Erineum patches are abnormal growths on leaves caused by mites, specifically eriophyid mites, which induce the plant to form these structures.

Question No. :53

During 1965-66, before Green Revolution, India produced wheat to the extent of

(A) 71 million tonnes (B) 17 million tonnes

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (B) 17 million tonnes

Explanation: Before the Green Revolution, India's wheat production was significantly lower, around 17 million tonnes in 1965-66.

Question No. :54

The vitamin that is not found in plants

(A) Niacin(B6) (B) Thiamine(B1)

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (D) Vitamin B12

Explanation: Vitamin B12 is not synthesized by plants and is typically found in animal products. It is produced by certain bacteria.

Question No. :56

Non-symbiotic nitrogen fixation in plants is mediated by

(A) Rhizobium (B) Azotobacter

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (B) Azotobacter

Explanation: Azotobacter is a free-living nitrogen-fixing bacterium that converts atmospheric nitrogen into a form that plants can use.

Question No. :57

The first All India ICAR-sponsored coordinated Crop Improvement Research project was on

(A) Wheat (B) Maize

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) Wheat

Explanation: The first coordinated research project by ICAR was focused on wheat improvement, initiated to enhance wheat production and productivity.

Question No. :58

Starch is hydrolysed by

(A) Catalase (B) Hexokinase

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (D) Amylase

Explanation: Amylase is an enzyme that hydrolyzes starch into simpler sugars like maltose and glucose. This process is essential for the digestion of starchy foods in plants and animals.

Question No. :59

Nitrogen Fixation is:

(A) Conversion of NH3 to NO2 (B) Conversion of NO3 to N2

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (C) Reduction of N2 to NH4

Explanation: Nitrogen fixation is the process by which atmospheric nitrogen (N2) is reduced to ammonia (NH4), making nitrogen available to plants for their growth and development. This process is primarily carried out by certain bacteria and cyanobacteria.

Question No. :60

Zinc is used up by the plants as:

(A) Zn (B) Zn(NO3)2

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (D) Zn++

Explanation: Plants absorb zinc in the form of Zn++ ions. Zinc is a vital micronutrient for plants, playing a crucial role in enzyme function, protein synthesis, and growth regulation.

Question No. :61

Out of the total arable land area in India, rainfed area comes to about

(A) 70% (B) 30%

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) 70%

Explanation: A significant portion of India's agricultural land, approximately 70%, is rainfed, relying on monsoon rains for irrigation.

Question No. :62

The pyridoxine nucleotides are co-enzymes for the enzymes

(A) Carboxylases (B) Esterases

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (D) Dehydrogenases

Explanation: Pyridoxine (vitamin B6) derivatives, such as pyridoxal phosphate, act as co-enzymes for various dehydrogenase enzymes involved in amino acid metabolism.

Question No. :63

Match the following NRCs (National Research Centers) with their locations:

I. NRC for women Agriculture (A) pune

II. NRC for onion and Garlic (B) anand

III. NRC for weed science (C) junagadh

IV.NRC for medicinal and aromatic plants (D) jabalpur

V. NRC for Groundnuts (E) Bhubaneswar

Answer+Explanation

Question No. :64 Match the following crops with their respective diseases:

I. Soybean (A) Ramularia areola

II. wheat (B) Cercospora kikuchii

III. Rice (C) Bipolaris sorokiniana

IV.Chick-pea (D) Ascochyta rabiei

V.cotton (E) Magnaphorthe grisea

Answer+Explanation

Question No. :65 Match the following crops with their respective varieties:

I. Wheat (A) Taichung Native

II. Sugarcane (B) Co-1148

III. Bengal gram (C) TMV-2

IV. Groundnuts (D) Norin 10

V. Rice (E) C-235

Answer+Explanation

Question No. :66 Match the following international agricultural research centers with their locations:

I. CIMMYT (A) Syria

II. CIAT (B) india

III.AVRDC (C) colombia

IV.ICARDA D) Mexico

V. ICRISAT (E) Taiwan

Answer+Explanation

Question No. :67 Match the following crops with their respective pests:

I. Groundnut (A) Chiio infuscatellus

II. Rice (B) Helicoverpa armigera

III.Chick-pea (C) Holotrichea consannguinea

IV.Sugarcane D) Mayetiola destructor

V. Wheat (E) Nilaparvata lugens

Answer+Explanation

Question No. :68 Match the following.

I. Herbicide (A) DBCP/DD

II. Fungicide (B)Oxydemeyon-methyl

III. Insecticide (C) Fluchloralin

IV.Nematicide (D)Thiophanate methy

V. Groeth retardant (E)CCC

Answer+Explanation

Question No. 69:

The maximum growth rate of an organism occurs in

(A) Exponential phase (B) Lag phase

Answer+Explanation

Question No. :70

The potential of an undifferentiated plant cell (protoplast) to develop into a plant is referred to as

(A) Alternation of generation (B) Totipotency

Answer+Explanation

Question No. :71

With 70% seed germination, optimal seed rate of soybean is

(A) 25kg seed ha-1 (B) 75kg seed ha-1

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (C) 100kg seed ha-1

Explanation: With 70% seed germination, the optimal seed rate for soybean is approximately 100kg per hectare to ensure adequate plant population for maximum yield.

Question No. :72

Wheat protein is deficient in one of the amino acids

(A) Glycine (B) Methionine

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (C) Lysine

Explanation: Wheat protein is deficient in the essential amino acid lysine, making it less nutritionally complete compared to some other protein sources.

Question No. :73

Soybean crop has the ability to derive its nitrogen requirement from symbiotic

(A) 25% (B) 70%

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (C) 90%

Explanation: Soybean plants can derive up to 90% of their nitrogen requirement through symbiotic nitrogen fixation, primarily by the bacteria Bradyrhizobium japonicum.

Section 2: Genetics

Question No. :1

Mitosis and meiosis always differ in respect of the presence of

(A) Chromatids (B) Homologs

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (D) Bivalents

Explanation: Bivalents, pairs of homologous chromosomes, are present only during meiosis and not during mitosis, distinguishing the two processes.

Question No. :2

The following does not happen in Prophase I of meiosis

(A) Chromosome condensation (B) Pairing of homologs

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (D) Segregation

Explanation: Segregation, the separation of homologous chromosomes, occurs during anaphase I, not prophase I, in meiosis.

Question No. :3

One of the following is not a chain termination codon

(A) UUC (B) UAG

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) UUC

Explanation: UUC codes for the amino acid phenylalanine, whereas UAG, UAA, and UGA are stop codons used to terminate protein synthesis.

Question No. :4

In India, the issue of approval of release of transgenic/genetically modified crops is finalized by the agency

(A) GEAC (B) ICAR

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) GEAC

Explanation: The Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) is the apex body in India responsible for the approval of release of genetically modified organisms and products.

Question No. :5

All cells of an organism have virtually the same amount of DNA in cellular nuclei with the exception of

(A) Pollen (B) Egg

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (C) Both (A & B)

Explanation: Pollen and egg cells are gametes and contain half the amount of DNA compared to somatic cells due to meiosis.

Question No. :6

A molecule of RNA that carries an amino acid molecule to the ribosome for use in protein synthesis

(A) r-RNA (B) m-RNA

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (C) t-RNA

Explanation: Transfer RNA (t-RNA) carries amino acids to the ribosome during protein synthesis.

Question No. :7

The cell resulting from the fusion of gametes

(A) Seed (B) Embryo

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (C) Zygote

Explanation: The zygote is the cell that results from the fusion of male and female gametes during fertilization, marking the beginning of a new organism.

Question No. :8

An otherwise diploid organism with an extra pair of chromosomes (2n+2) is

(A) Tetrasomic (B) Trisomic

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) Tetrasomic

Explanation: An organism with an extra pair of chromosomes (2n+2) is called tetrasomic. This condition involves having four copies of a particular chromosome instead of the usual two.

Question No. :9

The increase vigor or function over the parents resulting from crossing is

(A) Heterosis (B) Dominance

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) Heterosis

Explanation: Heterosis, also known as hybrid vigor, refers to the phenomenon where the offspring exhibit greater vigor, growth, or function compared to their parents. This is commonly observed in hybrid plants and animals.

Question No. :10

A set of chromosomes as contained within a gamete is

(A) Germplasm (B) Genotype

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (C) Genome

Explanation: The genome refers to the complete set of chromosomes, including all of its genes, as contained within a gamete (sperm or egg cell).

Question No. :11

A circular extrachromosal body within a bacterial cell

(A) Plasmid (B) Nucleoid

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) Plasmid

Explanation: Plasmids are small, circular, extrachromosomal DNA molecules found in bacteria that can replicate independently of the chromosomal DNA.

Question No. :12

A plant cell devoid of cell wall

(A) Phytoplasma (B) Protoplast

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (B) Protoplast

Explanation: A protoplast is a plant cell that has had its cell wall removed, leaving the plasma membrane intact.

Question No. :13

The number of known non-sense codons concerning protein synthesis are

(A) Three (B) Twenty

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) Three

Explanation: There are three non-sense codons (stop codons) in the genetic code: UAA, UAG, and UGA, which signal the termination of protein synthesis.

Question No. :14

A cell lacking a membrane bound nucleus is

(A) Prokaryotic cell (B) Eukaryotic cell

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) Prokaryotic cell

Explanation: Prokaryotic cells, such as bacteria, do not have a membrane-bound nucleus or other membrane-bound organelles.

Question No. :15

Codons which code for an amino acid are

(A) Non-sense codons (B) Sense codons

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (B) Sense codons

Explanation: Sense codons are sequences of three nucleotides in mRNA that specify the addition of a particular amino acid to a growing polypeptide chain during translation.

Question No. 16:

18. A segment of DNA molecule that specifies a protein is

(A) Intron (B) Gene

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (B) Gene

Explanation: A gene is a segment of DNA that contains the necessary code to produce a protein..

Question No. 17:

19. Who coined the term “gene”?

(A) W. Johannsess (B) Gregor Mendel

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) W. Johannsess

Explanation: The term “gene” was coined by the Danish botanist Wilhelm Johannsen in 1909..

Question No. 18:

20. In DNA, the amount of adenine equal the amount of

(A) Cytosine (B) Thymine

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (B) Thymine

Explanation: According to Chargaff's rules, in DNA, the amount of adenine (A) is equal to the amount of thymine (T)..

Question No. 19:

An individual having one less that the usual diploid number of chromosome (2n-1)

(A) Monotrichae (B) Monotonic

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (C) Monosomic

Explanation: Monosomic refers to the condition of having one chromosome less than the normal diploid number, resulting in (2n-1) chromosomes.

Question No. 20:

DNA is usually double stranded, the two chains being

(A) Parallel (B) Antiparallel

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (B) Antiparallel

Explanation: In double-stranded DNA, the two strands run in opposite directions (antiparallel) to each other..

Question No. 21:

When cells prepare to divide, the chromosomes double and become visible in

(A) Metaphase (B) Anaphase

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (D) Prophase

Explanation: During prophase, the chromosomes condense and become visible under a microscope as the cell prepares for division..

Question No. 22:

The products of meiosis are single-celled haploid nuclei collectively termed as

(A) Spermatia (B) Eggs

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (C) Gametes

Explanation: Meiosis produces haploid cells, which are gametes (sperm and egg cells in animals, pollen and ovules in plants).

Question No. 23:

Structure of base pairs in DNA is

(A) A: T (B) G: C

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (C) Both (A: T and G: C)

Explanation: In DNA, adenine (A) pairs with thymine (T) and guanine (G) pairs with cytosine (C)..

Question No. 24:

The test of significance of experimental results are generally based on minimum error degree of freedom of

(A) 5-10% (B) 10-15%

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) 5-10%

Explanation: In statistical analysis, a significance level (alpha) of 5% to 10% is commonly used to determine the reliability of experimental results..

Question No. 25:

The class of enzymes which catalyze the linking together of two molecules:

(A) Ligases (B) Empimerases (C) Isozymes (D) Synthetase

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) Ligases

Explanation: Ligases are enzymes that facilitate the joining of two molecules by forming a new chemical bond, typically with the hydrolysis of ATP..

Question No. 26:

45. The production of a complementary strand of RNA from a segment of DNA is

(A) Transduction (B) Translation

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (C) Transcription

Explanation: Transcription is the process by which a segment of DNA is copied into RNA by the enzyme RNA polymerase..

Question No. 27: Match the following:

I. m RNA (A) Mitochondria

II. t RNA (B)ribosome

III. r RNA (C) virus

IV. circular DNA (D)anticodon

V. single stranded DNA (E)Poly A tail

Answer+Explanation

I. m RNA - (E) Poly A tail

II. t RNA - (D) Anticodon

III. r RNA - (B) Ribosome

IV. Circular DNA - (A) Mitochondria

V. Single stranded DNA - (C) Virus.

Question No. 28:

Match the following crops with their respective chromosome numbers:

I. Cotton Asiatic(Gossypium arboretum) (A) 2n=26 II. Bread wheat(triticum estivum) (B) 2n=52

III. Groundnut(Arachis hypogaea) (C) 2n=40

IV. Cotton American (gossypium hirsutum) (D) 2n=42

V. Durum wheat(Triticum turgidum) (E) 2n=28

Answer+Explanation

I. Cotton Asiatic (Gossypium arboreum) - (E) 2n=28

II. Bread wheat (Triticum aestivum) - (D) 2n=42

III. Groundnut (Arachis hypogaea) - (C) 2n=40

IV. Cotton American (Gossypium hirsutum) - (B) 2n=52

V. Durum wheat (Triticum turgidum) - (A) 2n=28.

Question No. 29:

Match the following terms with their definitions:

I. An individual with missing or extra chromosomes (A) diploid

II. A polyploidy containing three or more basic (B) Monoploid chromosome from the same species

III. An individual having more than twice the (C) polyploid normal haploid number of chromosomes

IV.A haploid plant produced from a diploid species (D) autoploid

V. An individual processing two sets of (E) aneuploid Chromosomes, one set coming from each parent

Answer+Explanation

Section 3: Plant Pathology

Question No. :1

The Gene-for-Gene theory of plant host-parasite interaction was discovered by

(A) Jacob and Monod (B) H.H. Flor

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (B) H.H. Flor

Explanation: The Gene-for-Gene theory, which describes how resistance in plants and virulence in pathogens are governed by specific gene interactions, was discovered by H.H. Flor.

Question No. :2

An embryonic shoot of a plant composed of meristem and leaf primordial and often protected by scales

(A) Gall (B) Nodule

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (C) Bud

Explanation: A bud is an embryonic shoot that includes a meristem and leaf primordia and is often protected by scales.

Question No. :3

Killing of bacteria in water by applying a strong magnetic field is

(A) Lysis (B) Plasmolysis

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) Lysis

Explanation: Lysis refers to the destruction of bacterial cells, which can occur through various means, including the application of strong magnetic fields.

Question No. :4

The principal nematode species causing root knot of groundnuts is

(A) Meloidogyne hapla (B) Meloidogyne arenaria

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (B) Meloidogyne arenaria

Explanation: Meloidogyne arenaria is the principal nematode species causing root knot disease in groundnuts, leading to significant crop losses.

Question No. :5

The sterility mosaic disease of pigeon pea is caused by

(A) Virus (B) Phytoplasma

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) Virus

Explanation: Sterility mosaic disease in pigeon pea is caused by a virus, leading to abnormal growth and sterility in the plant.

Question No. :6

The virus causing leaf curl disease of cotton is transmitted by

(A) Aphid (B) Leaf hopper

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (D) White fly

Explanation: The leaf curl virus of cotton is primarily transmitted by whiteflies.

Question No. :7

An abnormal proliferation of shoots due to phytoplasma or virus infection is termed as

(A) Witch’s broom (B) Phyllody

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) Witch’s broom

Explanation: Witch’s broom is an abnormal growth of shoots due to infection by phytoplasma or viruses.

Question No. :8

Inheritance of resistance in a plant to the pathogen was first discovered by

(A) E.C. Stakman (B) J.C. Walker

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (D) R.H. Biffen

Explanation: R.H. Biffen was the first to discover the genetic basis of plant resistance to pathogens, particularly in wheat.

Question No. :9

The rules for experimental proof of pathogenicity of a microorganism are given by

(A) Louis Pasteur (B) Robert Koch

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (B) Robert Koch

Explanation: Robert Koch developed a set of criteria known as Koch's postulates for experimentally proving the pathogenicity of a microorganism.

Question No. :10

The scientific name of a bacterium, Bacillus thuringiensis, owes its origin to Thuringia region in

(A) France (B) Germany

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (B) Germany

Explanation: Bacillus thuringiensis is named after the Thuringia region in Germany where it was first discovered.

Question No. :11

Cotton rust disease is caused by

(A) Fungus (B) Algae

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) Fungus

Explanation: Cotton rust disease is caused by a fungus, which affects the leaves and stems of the cotton plant, leading to reduced yield and quality.

Question No. :12

Which of the following fungal genus is not the cause of downy mildew disease in plants

(A) Peronospora (B) Plasmopara

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (C) Sphaerotheca

Explanation: Sphaerotheca is a genus of fungi that causes powdery mildew, not downy mildew. Downy mildew is caused by genera such as Peronospora, Plasmopara, and Sclerospora.

Question No. :13

The best method for detection of presence of seed–borne virus is

(A) Direct seed inspection (B) Washing seed test

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (D) Indicator plant test

Explanation: The indicator plant test is used to detect the presence of seed-borne viruses by growing the seeds and observing the resulting plants for symptoms of viral infection.

Question No. :14

Tungro disease of rice is caused by a virus transmitted

(A) Green leaf hopper (B) Brown plant hopper

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) Green leaf hopper

Explanation: Tungro disease of rice is caused by a virus transmitted by the green leaf hopper. This virus affects rice plants, leading to stunted growth and yellowing of leaves.

Question No. :15

Sunflower necrosis disease as reported to occur recently in Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka is caused by

(A) Fungus (B) Bacterium

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (C) Virus

Explanation: Sunflower necrosis disease is caused by a virus, specifically the Tobacco Streak Virus (TSV). This disease has been reported in sunflower crops in Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka, leading to significant yield losses.

Question No. :16

The causal organism of stripe rust of wheat is

(A) Puccinia glumarum (B) Puccinia recondita

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) Puccinia glumarum

Explanation: Stripe rust of wheat, also known as yellow rust, is caused by the fungus Puccinia glumarum. This pathogen affects the leaves of wheat plants, leading to yellowish streaks and reduced grain yield.

Question No. 17:

A devastating outbreak of an infectious disease in population of plants is

(A) Epidemic (B) Epibiotic

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (C) Epiphytotic

Explanation: An epiphytotic is a widespread outbreak of a plant disease, similar to an epidemic in humans..

Question No. 18:

A virus particle is

(A) Viroid (B) virion

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (B) Virion

Explanation: A virion is a complete virus particle that consists of an RNA or DNA core with a protein coat, and is the extracellular infective form of a virus..

Question No. :19

The fungus Ustilaginoidea virens causes

(A) False smut of rice (B) Loose smut of wheat

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) False smut of rice

Explanation: Ustilaginoidea virens is the pathogen responsible for causing false smut disease in rice, characterized by greenish-yellow spore balls.

Question No. :20

Mungbean yellow mosaic virus causing soybean’s yellow mosaic disease is a

(A) Badna Virus (B) Geminivirus

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (B) Geminivirus

Explanation: The mungbean yellow mosaic virus (MYMV) belongs to the family Geminiviridae, which consists of viruses with twin icosahedral particles.

Question No. 21: Match the following:

I. Tomato (A) Khaira

II.Rice (B)iron chlorosis

III.groundnut (C) Black- tip

IV.Mango (D)Blossom-end rot

V.oat (E)Greay speak

Answer+Explanation

Section 4: Plant Breeding

Question No. :1

Pistil of a seed-bearing flower is composed of

(A) Ovary (B) Style

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (D) Ovary, style and stigma

Explanation: The pistil of a seed-bearing flower is composed of three parts: the ovary, the style, and the stigma.

Question No. :2

Pisatin is related to

(A) Maize (B) Peas

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (B) Peas

Explanation: Pisatin is a phytoalexin found in peas that plays a role in plant defense mechanisms.

Question No. :3

Plants that have separate male and female individual (plants) are termed as

(A) Monoecious (B) Dioecious

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (B) Dioecious

Explanation: Dioecious plants have separate male and female individuals, meaning that each plant is either male or female.

Question No. :4

The rice crop species Oryza glaberrima is most predominantly cultivated in

(A) Australia (B) Middle East

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (C) Africa

Explanation: Oryza glaberrima, also known as African rice, is predominantly cultivated in Africa.

Question No. :5

First irrigation in Mexican dwarf wheat crop is recommended between

(A) 7-15 days after sowing (B) 15-20 days after sowing

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) 7-15 days after sowing

Explanation: The first irrigation for the Mexican dwarf wheat crop is typically recommended between 7-15 days after sowing to ensure proper germination and early growth.

Question No. :6

Lines that are genetically similar except for one gene

(A) Pure lines (B) Homozygous lines

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (D) Isogenic lines

Explanation: Isogenic lines are genetically identical except for a single gene.

Question No. :7

A cross of hybrid to a genetically homozygous recessive parent

(A) Test cross (B) Back cross

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) Test cross

Explanation: A test cross involves crossing a hybrid organism with a homozygous recessive individual to determine the genotype of the hybrid by analyzing the phenotypes of the offspring.

Question No. :8

Symbol used to designate the original selfed plant

(A) S1 (B) SO

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (C) S0

Explanation: The symbol S0 is used to designate the original selfed plant in genetic studies.

Question No. :9

The product of two single cross hybrids is

(A) Monohybrid (B) Dihybrid

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (C) Double cross hybrid

Explanation: A double cross hybrid is the product of two single cross hybrids, combining the genetic material of four different parent lines.

Question No. :10

The generation of seeds obtained through multiplication of nuclear seed is

(A) Foundation seed (B) Registered seed

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) Foundation seed

Explanation: Foundation seeds are produced from breeder seeds and are used to produce certified seeds. They maintain genetic purity and identity.

Question No. : 11.

If pollen falls on stigma belonging to different flower borne on the same plant, it is

(A) Genetically self pollination

(B) Cross pollination

(D) None of the above

Answer+Explanation

Question No.12:

Maize is

(A) Cleistogamous(B) Anemophilous

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (B) Anemophilous

Explanation: Maize (corn) is pollinated by wind, which is referred to as anemophily..

Question No. 13:

13. Microscopic structure of flower that contains usually 8 nuclei is

(A) Pollen grain (B) Pollen tube

Answer+Explanation

Question No. 14:

Part of gynoecium which receives pollen is

(A) Ovule (B) Ovary

Answer+Explanation

Answer:(D) Stigma

Explanation: The stigma is the part of the flower's gynoecium that catches and holds pollen during pollination..

Question No. 15:

Ovule is attached to placenta by means of

(A) Pedicel (B) Funicle

Answer+Explanation

Question No. 16:

Plants that have separate male and female individual (Plants) are termed as

(A) Monoecious (B) Dioecious

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (B) Dioecious

Explanation: Dioecious plants have distinct male and female individuals, meaning each plant is either male or female..

Question No. 17:

The first two dwarf Mexican wheat varieties imported in India were

(A) Kalyan Sona and Sonalika (B) UP 301 and RR21

Answer+Explanation

Section 5: Seed Technology

Question No. :1

The identification mark of certified seed is

(A) Purple tag (B) White tag

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (D) Blue tag

Explanation: Certified seeds are identified by a blue tag, indicating that they meet the certification standards for genetic purity and quality.

Question No. :2

Minimum isolation distance for certified seed production of wheat is

(A) 400 meter (B) 150 meter

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (C) 10 meter

Explanation: The minimum isolation distance for certified seed production of wheat is 10 meters to prevent cross-pollination and maintain genetic purity.

Question No. :3

Minimum isolation distance for certified seed production of groundnuts is

(A) 100 meter (B) 50 meter

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) 100 meter

Explanation: For certified seed production of groundnuts, a minimum isolation distance of 100 meters is required to prevent cross-contamination from other groundnut varieties, ensuring genetic purity and quality of the seeds.

Question No. 4:

10. Which of the following causes Seed dormancy

(A) Ethylene (B) Abscisic acid

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (B) Abscisic acid

Explanation: Abscisic acid is a plant hormone that induces seed dormancy, helping seeds withstand unfavorable conditions..

Question No. 5:

Extremely long term seed storage facility is possible by low temperature freezing by

(A) Cryostorage

(B) Cold storage

(D) Thermolabile storage

Answer+Explanation

Section 6: Plant Physiology

Question No. :1

Rough- surface endoplasmic reticulum in a living cell bear

(A) Microsomes (B) Ribosome’s

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (B) Ribosomes

Explanation: The rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) is studded with ribosomes, which are responsible for protein synthesis..

Question No. :2

Mitochondria are not present in the living cells of

(A) Bacteria (B) Fungi

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) Bacteria

Explanation: Bacteria are prokaryotic organisms and do not have membrane-bound organelles like mitochondria.

Question No. :3

16. Chlorosis due to deficiency of Nitrogen in crop plants become visible first in (A) Old leaves

(B) Young leaves

(D) Middle leaves

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) Old leaves

Explanation: Nitrogen is a mobile nutrient within the plant, and its deficiency symptoms, such as chlorosis (yellowing), first appear in older leaves as nitrogen is translocated to new growth..

Question No. :4

17. Growth hormone that results in apical dominance is

(A) Auxin (B) Gibberellin

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) Auxin

Explanation: Auxin is a plant hormone that promotes apical dominance by inhibiting the growth of lateral buds, allowing the main shoot to grow taller..

Question No. :5

14. The stress hormone is

(A) IAA (B) GA3

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (C) ABA (Abscisic Acid)

Explanation: Abscisic acid (ABA) is commonly known as the stress hormone in plants as it plays a key role in managing plant stress responses, including drought and salinity..

Question No. :6

9. Who discovered that during photosynthesis, O2 comes from water and not from CO2.

(A) Van Niel (B) Ruben and Kamen (C) Warburg (D) Blackman

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (B) Ruben and Kamen

Explanation: Ruben and Kamen conducted experiments using oxygen isotopes and discovered that oxygen produced during photosynthesis comes from water.

Question No. :7

8. Visible light forms part of electromagnetic spectrum between wavelengths of

(A) Violet and Red

(B) Ultra violet and Infra-Red

(D) Violet and Infrared

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) Violet and Red

Explanation: Visible light ranges from approximately 400 nm (violet) to 700 nm (red) in the electromagnetic spectrum.

Question No. :8

Apomixis means reproduction from

(A) An unfertilized egg (B) somatic cells

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (C) Both (A) and (B)

Explanation: Apomixis refers to asexual reproduction without fertilization, either from an unfertilized egg (A) or from somatic cells (B).

Question No. :9

Which pigment is absent in chloroplast

(A) Anthocyanin (B) Chlorophyll

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) Anthocyanin

Explanation: Chloroplasts contain chlorophyll, carotene, and xanthophyll pigments. Anthocyanin is found in the vacuoles of plant cells, not in chloroplasts.

Question No. :10

C4 plants differ from C3 plants in having different

(A) Photosynthetic pigments

(B) Initial acceptor of CO2

(D) End product

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (B) Initial acceptor of CO2

Explanation: C4 plants have a different initial CO2 acceptor compared to C3 plants, which allows them to photosynthesize more efficiently under conditions of drought, high temperatures, and low nitrogen or CO2.

Question No. :11

Excessive growth due to an enlargement of individual cell is

(A) Hyperplasia (B) Hypertrophy

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (B) Hypertrophy

Explanation: Hypertrophy is the excessive growth due to the enlargement of individual cells.

Question No. :12

The precursor of auxin (IAA) in higher plants is

(A) Tryptophan (B) Tyrosine

Answer+Explanation

Answer: (A) Tryptophan

Explanation: Tryptophan is the amino acid precursor to indole-3-acetic acid (IAA), a major auxin in higher plants.

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Agri X Culture

ICAR AIEEA PG Plant Science JRF 2005 Previous Year Question Paper with Explanation

Details About Exam:

Section 1: General Agriculture

Section 2: Genetics

Section 3: Plant Pathology

Section 4: Plant Breeding

Section 5: Seed Technology

Section 6: Plant Physiology

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